dsr wrote:The reason it's dishonest, turtle, (I suppose it may be an honest mistake, though I doubt it) is because it draws a conclusion that is not supported by the facts.
So the average household income last year was £26,400. The expenditure for that average household was (let's say) £26,400, break even point. At the end of the year, they were in the same financial position as they started.
The following year, the pound has dropped, so the £26,400 they earned (allow 1% inflation pay rise, now £26,664) is now worth $32,530. And the £26,400 they spent (plus inflation, now £26,664) is also worth $32,530. So they have earned £26,664 and spent £26,664, which gives the same result as last year - break even. They aren't £4,488 worse off.
Where your mistake (deliberate or otherwise) comes from is that you are assuming that the average household receives its money in US Dollars, but spends it in Sterling. I assure you, as I suspect you really know, that that isn't how it works. It's Sterling in, Sterling out, for most families.
It wasn't a perfect refutation of an argument, nor was it intended to be because it wasn't responding to an argument at all. Moffitt make a dismissive post about Osborne saying that the average UK household would be £4,300 worse off in 15 years because of Brexit and i showed how by one measure we're already worse off. Moffitt, of course, didn't include the 15 years bit, but i wanted to show him how we're all already worse off as a result of the devalued Pound. The effects of this devaluation hasn't been felt yet, though i never claimed it was.
And i'm pretty sure i made a number of efforts to be absolutely clear that i was saying I was comparing the
value of the average households income relative to the US dollar. I was never pretending that the average UK household is currently, actually over £4,300 British pounds worse off because it would be impossible to predict exactly how much the cost of living is going to go up over the next years or two as a result of our currency being devalued.
You and Tom are criticising me for presenting a conclusion that I have not presented, and making an argument that I have not made, and then called me dishonest for it.
As a side note, isn't it funny how you're not criticising Moffitt for deliberately excluding the "15 years" thing from Osbornes comment, you know, for effect? Isn't that dishonest? Actually, of course it's not, because it wasn't deliberate. But isn't it funny how you're willing to give someone with whom you agree the benefit of the doubt while jumping on the back of someone you don't?